University of Phoenix Material Final Examination (v1) NSCI/280 Version 5
University of Phoenix Material
Final Examination (v1)
This is a 40-question final examination. Each question is worth 0.5 point.
1. The study of tissues is
a. cytology b. histology c. molecular biology d. microbiology e. surface anatomy
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2. In a negative feedback mechanism, the response of the effector
a. reverses the original stimulus b. enhances the original stimulus c. has no effect on the original stimulus d. is usually damaging to the body e. creates a cycle that leads away from homeostasis
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3. Covalent bonds form when
a. atomic nuclei fuse b. molecules become ionized c. neutrons are transferred from one atom to another d. protons are lost from atoms e. electrons are shared between two atoms
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4. Reactions that use water to split molecules apart are called _______ reactions.
a. dehydration b. synthesis c. hydrolysis d. reversible e. oxidation
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5. Proteins
a. are the body’s source of immediate energy b. are the building blocks of nucleotides c. provide much of the structure of body cells and tissues d. contain the genetic information of the cell e. insulate and cushion the body
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6. The plasma membrane
a. separates the nucleus from the rest of the cell b. is a rigid protein membrane c. is not permeable d. has a single layer of phospholipids e. regulates movement of materials into and out of the cell
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7. Channel proteins
a. are binding sites for other molecules b. utilize the G protein complex to function c. are found only on endoplasmic reticulum d. allow cells to recognize one another e. provide a “door” through which extracellular molecules can enter the cell
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8. Which of the following is a function of epithelial tissue?
a. conduction of action potentials b. secretion and absorption of molecules c. support of other tissue types d. contraction e. shock absorption
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9. Adipose tissue
a. functions as an insulator and a site of energy storage b. exists in three forms: yellow, red, and brown c. contains large amounts of extracellular matrix d. is composed of relatively small cells e. does not contain lipids
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10. Skin color is the result of the
a. quantity of melanin in the skin b. number of keratinocytes in the skin c. amount of fat in the hypodermis d. thickness of the stratum basale e. number of melanocytes in the skin
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11. What does structure “B” represent on the diagram?
a. hair follicle b. arrector pili c. dermis d. hypodermis e. sebaceous gland
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12. When blood calcium levels are low
a. osteoclast activity increases b. calcitonin secretion increases c. calcium absorption is reduced d. bones produce more bone tissue e. osteoblast activity increases
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13. What does structure “A” represent on the bone diagram?
a. cancellous bone b. Diaphysis c. epiphyseal lines d. articular cartilage e. epiphysis
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14. What does structure “A” represent?
a. frontal bone b. occipital bone c. parietal bone d. sphenoid bone e. temporal bone
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15. The figure illustrates bones of the right upper limb. What does “A” represent?
a. radius b. carpals c. phalanges d. metacarpals e. ulna
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16. The figure illustrates bones of the right lower limb. What does “C” represent?
a. femur b. fibula c. tarsals d. tibia e. patella
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17. The joint between the head of the radius and the proximal end of the ulna is a _____ joint.
a. plane b. saddle c. hinge d. pivot e. ball and socket |
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18. What does structure “A” represent on the diagram?
a. tendon b. articular cartilage c. bursa d. fibrous capsule e. synovial membrane
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19. Which of the following is composed of myosin molecules?
a. thick myofilaments b. I Bands c. Z disks d. Sarcolemma e. tropomyosin
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20. What does “B” represent on the diagram?
a. threshold b. depolarization c. depolarization phase of action potential d. repolarization phase of action potential
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21. The flexion of the elbow represents a
a. class I lever system b. class II lever system c. class III lever system d. class IV lever system e. non-lever system
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22. Label muscle “A” on the diagram.
a. orbicularis oculi b. temporalis c. trapezius d. sternocleidomastoid e. masseter
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23. What does “A” represent?
a. coracobrachialis b. deltoid c. pectoralis major d. biceps brachii e. serratus anterior
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24. The central nervous system includes the
a. ganglia b. spinal cord c. spinal nerves d. cranial nerves e. sensory receptors
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25. Identify structure “A” on the neuron.
a. Schwann cell b. Node of Ranvier c. neuron cell body (soma) d. dendrites e. axon
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26. The figure is a process figure of the chemical synapse. What does “C” represent?
a. postsynaptic membrane b. synaptic cleft c. synaptic vesicle d. voltage-gated calcium channel e. presynaptic terminal
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27. Which of the following combinations indicates the correct distribution of spinal nerve pairs?
a. 7 cervical – 12 thoracic – 6 lumbar – 5 sacral – 1 coccygeal b. 7 cervical – 12 thoracic – 5 lumbar – 6 sacral – 1 coccygeal c. 8 cervical – 12 thoracic – 6 lumbar – 4 sacral – 1 coccygeal d. 8 cervical – 12 thoracic – 5 lumbar – 5 sacral – 1 coccygeal e. 7 cervical – 13 thoracic – 6 lumbar – 5 sacral – 1 coccygeal
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28. Label component “A” on the reflex arc.
a. sensory receptor b. effector organ c. sensory neuron d. motor neuron e. interneuron
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29. A small lesion in the brainstem which resulted in a rapid heart rate, intense vasoconstriction, and elevated blood pressure would probably be located in the
a. medulla oblongata. b. Pons c. Cerebellum d. Hypothalamus e. cerebrum
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30. The corpus callosum
a. consists of a broad band of gray matter b. is found at the base of the transverse fissure c. is a band of commissural fibers that connects the right cerebral hemisphere to the left cerebral hemisphere d. connects the frontal lobe to the occipital lobe e. connects the frontal lobe to the parietal lobe
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31. Which nerve has branches that extend to the thoracic and abdominal viscera?
a. facial nerve b. vagus nerve c. trigeminal nerve d. glossopharyngeal ner
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32. Which of the following is a somatic sense?
a. smell b. taste c. touch d. sound e. sight
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33. Label area “A” on the cerebral cortex.
a. visual cortex b. primary motor cortex c. primary somatic sensory cortex d. motor speech area (Broca’s area) e. sensory speech area (Wernicke’s area)
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34. The figure is a sagittal section of the eye. What does “A” represent?
a. iris b. pupil c. lens d. conjunctiva e. cornea
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35. Which of the following is NOT an effector controlled by the autonomic nervous system?
a. cardiac muscle b. glands c. skeletal muscle d. smooth muscle in blood vessels e. smooth muscle in the digestive system
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36. Identify structure “C” on the bottom diagram.
a. autonomic ganglion b. somatic motor neuron c. effector organ (smooth muscle of GI tract) d. postganglionic neuron e. preganglionic neuron
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37. The endocrine system
a. releases neurotransmitters into ducts b. secretes chemicals that reach their targets through the bloodstream c. communicates via frequency-modulated signals d. contains organs called exocrine glands e. is isolated from the nervous system
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38. Consider the following events in the intracellular receptor model:
Which of these events occurs in the nucleus?
a. 1, 3, 5 b. 1, 3, 4 c. 1, 2, 3 d. 3, 4, 5 e. All events occur in the nucleus
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39. The hypothalamus
a. rests in the sella turcica b. is also called the neurohypophysis c. is located inferior to the pituitary gland d. regulates the secretory activity of the pituitary gland e. is located superior to the thalamus
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40. The major secretory products of the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex are
a. glucocorticoids b. mineralocorticoids c. androgens. d. catecholamines e. cortisol and ADH
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